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Thread: Borrowing from dorian,phrygian,Lydian,Miolydian,Locrian

  1. #61
    Latin Wedding Band Los Boleros's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by brent
    "The chords are G/C/Em/C"

    Did you mean G/C/Dm?/C
    Woops, yes, I meant Dm
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  2. #62
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    Now do you see it as G mixo?
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  3. #63
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    Yea because that makes the difference now because of the D chord

    Louie Louie is a I/IV/v/IV in G mixolidian

    it is not a V/I/ii/I in C Ionian

    This is a Close Connection of what makes if different it like a double anaylze
    you can look at it both ways but i think what makes the difference is the "pulling" effect

  4. #64
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    Quote Originally Posted by brent
    but i think what makes the difference is the "pulling" effect
    And that is what modal is all about.
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  5. #65
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    Quote Originally Posted by Los Boleros
    And that is what modal is all about.
    You can talk about the parent key all you want, but if it is in a modal key other than Ionian or aeolian, then you have to shift your hiarchy of harmonized chords. You may have to modifie a cadence.
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  6. #66
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    Thanks alot for the information


    Do you know what makes this "Pulling" effect?

    I guess if you just start/ i mean the first chord would be on a different scale degree that it would pull to that chord at the end because the first chord is starting on a mode/scale degree

    example if my first chord was a IV chord the progression will pull to resolve to the IV chord
    if my first chord was a iii chord the progression will pull to resolve to the iii chord

  7. #67
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    Do you remember I told you that modal vamps are usually no more than two chords and modal progressions are usually no more than three chords? That is because if you add more chords, it will tend to pull to the parent key.
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  8. #68
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    you add more chords, it will tend to pull to the parent key.

    Thats its if you add more chords it does pull to the parent key this has been my whole problem so you can only really harmonize a Modal Melody with only 2 or 3 chords or Vamp progressions only with modal melody lines

  9. #69
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    I see we are making progress here. And you also understand the need to modifie a chord so that you can creat a V or V7 chords if you want that kind of Cadence, right?
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  10. #70
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    If you have a Modal melody lines you have to Cadence in the Parent Key

    and have to change the V chord to a dominate chord

  11. #71
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    Don't understand. Is that a question? can you be more specifiic. Use an example please.
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  12. #72
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    Mixolydian mode example: progression was ii-V-I cadence

    Aminor-Dminor-Gmajor you can't cadence like this

    have to change the Dminor to D dominant chord

    Lydian mode example: Progression was ii-V-I cadence

    G minor- Cmajor- Fmajor this could work

    Phygian mode example: Progression was ii-V-I cadence

    Fminor-B(dim)-Eminor

    Have to modify the cadance in phygian mode landing on a Eminor

    Dorian Mode example: Progression was ii-V-I cadence

    Eminor-Aminor-Dminor

    Have to modify the V( A minor chord) to a A Dominant chord?

  13. #73
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    Quote Originally Posted by brent
    Phygian mode example: Progression was ii-V-I cadence

    Fminor-B(dim)-Eminor

    Have to modify the cadance in phygian mode landing on a Eminor
    By this, you mean change it to:
    F/B7/Em. right?

    You could also make it a Dominant phrygian mode:
    F/B7/E7
    this is one I like alot.
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    Talking Beginner's Inquiry: Mary Had a Little Lamb in Phrygian Mode???!

    Beginner's Inquiry:
    Mary Had a Little Lamb in Phrygian Mode???!


    They say there are no stupid questions . . . this could be the exception, but as someone just starting to understand music theory (which seems, at least to me, not to have very much theoretical underpinning, but rather a lot of PRACTICE at its core), I'm having trouble relating modes to what I actually hear.

    Imagine we decided to take the prodigy Mozart's great creation "Mary Had a Little Lamb" (Edison's first recorded effort on the phonograph) and shifted an Ionan version of the ditty to Phrygian Mode . . .

    How exactly would we do that?

    Would we expect the new result to sound like epic Spanish music?

    What are the implications for ear musicians unschooled in theory who can't read sheet music, could they understand what was going on and "steal" my "new" tune?

    Indeed, ethically, is it a "new" tune? Would I owe a recent Mozart, if he created it just yesteryear, a royalty check?

    As far as your notation, would you just write "in the Phrygian Mode Andante Furioso" LOL or some other note?

    Am I missing something of significance with this line of inquiry?

    Any other comments that you think should be made?


    Thank you,
    Bob

  15. #75
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    Well, I suspect many will reckognize this Phrygian version as familiar and if Mozart was alive today would sue you with probably winning the lawsuit.

    But, granted it will sound awful because the phrygian cadence Vm- Im is a weak cadence and furthermore the b2 will be unconvincing as a "correct" note because if it was the parallel aeolian it would fit much more nicely and we are very used to this type of modality.

    PS: And someone said that Simpsons is in Lydian. Close but no, it is the Lydian Dominant or the Overtone scale or the fourth mode of melodic minor.
    Last edited by ragasaraswati; 02-10-2008 at 05:11 PM.

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