Made a jazz (chillhop) arrangement of a Christmas oldie...discovered that using a maj7(+) chord as the functioning dominant works surprisingly well!


I suppose it's a tension release scenario.... Or do you guys have any opinions/knowledge on why that works? It's so "wrong" music theory-wise... but I love the sound of it and it does work.


The melody carries it I suppose..... hmmm. Thoughts?


Thanks.